The answer to this question may be obvious but since autumn of last year
Goldman Sachs has switched to being a bank. And the problem with Goldman now being a bank will really be the following: how can the firm justify the banking status when a disproportionately large amount of revenues/profits is derived from trading or advisory work? How much did Goldman really lend to business and consumers during the past 12 months it is a bank? In addition, how much longer are banks allowed to conduct non-bank business, e.g. own other businesses (even if it is via the conduit of private equity - managed directly or farmed out to other PE firms).
No comments:
Post a Comment